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[Bally6354]

This is getting a bit of airplay on another site.

Has anyone figured this stuff out yet? 

http://web.archive.org/web/20021209001742/www.sq-ro-let.com/contents.html


chapter 3 Sam! 

[TwoCatSam]

Two wheels are side by side.

Joe plays twelve units the first dozen.

Bill plays a unit on each number in the first dozen.

#10 comes on one wheel and #5 on the other.  Who wins more?

Thanks, Bally.

Sam

[sqzbox]

Well, it is the same of course.  I personally don't subscribe to Jack's theory BUT I have to say, I haven't quite figured out how to come to terms with the concept of betting against yourself - which is what you are doing if you bet more than one number.  It would seem to be a bad idea yet the arithmetic shows quite clearly that it has no cost.  Consider the following 2 scenarios - one betting all numbers and one betting just one number.


Scenario 1 – 1 chip on all 38 numbers for 38 spins (he is using the American wheel).  Using the probabilities we would get a single hit on each spin so the arithmetic is like this: cost 38, return 35 plus our chip on that number = 36. Net loss = 2. Over 38 spins our total net loss is 76 units and our outlay is 38 x 38 = 1444. Calculating our loss in percentage terms is 76/1444= 0.0526.  Or 5.26%.
Scenario 2 – 38 chips on 1 number for 38 spins.  We get one hit (probabilistic-ally speaking).  So – cost is the same at 1444 (38 x 38).  The return when we get our hit is 38 x 35 plus our 38 chips on the number = 1368 so our net total loss is 1444 – 1368 = 76.  Again, calculating our loss in percentage terms is 76/1444= 0.0526.  Or 5.26%.So I'm afraid that his theory doesn't stack up – at least, as far as I understand what he is trying to say.  If you think I haven't understood his theory properly then that's fine, explain it to me a bit more and I'll try another scenario.

[sqzbox]

mmm - I wonder what happened to scenario 1?  Oh well, here it is.


Scenario 1 – 1 chip on all 38 numbers for 38 spins (he is using the American wheel).  Using the probabilities we would get a single hit on each spin so the arithmetic is like this: cost 38, return 35 plus our chip on that number = 36. Net loss = 2. Over 38 spins our total net loss is 76 units and our outlay is 38 x 38 = 1444. Calculating our loss in percentage terms is 76/1444= 0.0526.  Or 5.26%.
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[sqzbox]

What's going on?  Why wouldn't it post?  It was a simple cut and paste.  I'll try one more time.
Scenario 1 – 1 chip on all 38 numbers for 38 spins (he is using the American wheel).  Using the probabilities we would get a single hit on each spin so the arithmetic is like this: cost 38, return 35 plus our chip on that number = 36. Net loss = 2. Over 38 spins our total net loss is 76 units and our outlay is 38 x 38 = 1444. Calculating our loss in percentage terms is 76/1444= 0.0526.  Or 5.26%.

[Bally6354]

Bryan

I posted the link up to the book on this site to help out another member (Twocatsam)

The other site where it was getting discussed does not allow links!

I am still reading through it myself. It is an entertaining read if nothing else.

cheers

[VLS]

What's going on?  Why wouldn't it post?  It was a simple cut and paste.

Bryan, you are getting acclimatized     
Perhaps the toggle button can help this time. It's the "A" on the toolbar :

[attachimg=1]

It changes the post box into a regular text-only space (a la notepad). It accepts all text.