hi folks,

i have a question and I hope someone here can help:

what is the probability that within 3 spins all 3 different dozens hit (in which order doesn't matter). and how is the calculation done?

thx a lot already and cheers

hans

hi folks,

does this look like  a more or less stable result for an even chance 1 unit flatbet? or does it lie within the usual 'what one has to expect range'?

the spins are 4000 real spins from dublinbet. I simulated 39 sessions, each session exactly 100 spins. 2407 bets were placed.  Zero counted as a loss of one unit.

opinions welcome. 

cheers

hans

hi guys,

just don't get too excitet about the headline of this topic. 

the attached pdf (which will be attached by Victor a bit later because it's too large to be uploaded) does not really give a solution. still it shows that a solution might be found in the well known red/black/odd/even differences. it also explains why, because of these differences, roulette is not totally random.

I think it is an interesting read anyway and might even "challenge" the math guys among us.

cheers

hans 

EDIT: http://betselection.cc/uploads/hanshuckebein/a_solution_to_roulette.pdf

hi folks,

several times I tried to upload a pdf file but always failed.  the original pdf is about 6.35 mb. I even split it into smaller parts of about 2 mb each. this didn't work either.

could any of the moderators please offer assistance?

cheers

hans

hi folks,

first of all a very merry xmas to all of you. 

I don't know if this could be calculated at all, still I have a question: playing 4 single numbers on a single zero wheel, how many spins should I need/ expect until I have reached the minus 2,7% as a more or less steady result?

thanks for your ideas, suggestions and solutions.

cheers

hans

hi folks,

I found this on rouletteforum.com.

as I'm not a member there I thought I'd bring it over here.

the copy of the webpage gives some explanation.

I played an rx session following the rules given on the webpage, my bankroll went down south.  well, maybe I did something wrong.

you might take a look at this concept and tell us what you think of it.

cheers

hans

hi folks,

let's say someone plays a session of roulette in which there is a strong tendency for blacks. instead of betting on blacks he bets on the 1st and the 2nd col. he assumes that if there is trend for black there should also be a trend for these 2 col.

is this assumption based on the believe that conditional probability sort of favors his bet selection?

oh, I know that this has been tried before and doesn't work  . I'm just trying to understand the idea and theory behind it.

cheers

hans

hi folks,

is anyone of you familiar with the writings and probability concept of george spencer-brown?

while googling my way through the www I found this old page which put me on spencer-brown's tracks.

http://www.bjmath.com/bin-cgi/bjmath.pl?noframes;read=4294


for a start you might like to read the attached pdf file.

cheers

hans