Gents one thing I don't understand. Why that HAR should work, or better to say reduce the variance as it is actually what does to you who are allegedly wining with it?
You are entering at random points of random distribution. Although obviously those "dives" onto random distribution are short and you are just shortly exposing different values of odds, betting to it (IMO of changing the systems all the time, as Macau says), you expect not to be affected by one of randoms "features" as that variance I mentioned is.
So somehow those sudden changing of different odds should avoid variance.. --that is what all of you are saying actually
So you face random vs random and do not expect to be influenced with all characteristics of random.. You actually eliminate characterstic which is most unpleasant to you as a bettor.
Mathematically that is not possible in the longterm, but you somehow still succeed..
Bayes simulated some time ago JL-s HAR style, randomly entering at distribution, and results were in the end the same as continuous betting I am afraid..
So you say hit and run. But how and why do you always somehow succeed more times first to hit and then run, so brazenly deceiving our beloved variance?
Best
Drazen
You are entering at random points of random distribution. Although obviously those "dives" onto random distribution are short and you are just shortly exposing different values of odds, betting to it (IMO of changing the systems all the time, as Macau says), you expect not to be affected by one of randoms "features" as that variance I mentioned is.
So somehow those sudden changing of different odds should avoid variance.. --that is what all of you are saying actually
So you face random vs random and do not expect to be influenced with all characteristics of random.. You actually eliminate characterstic which is most unpleasant to you as a bettor.
Mathematically that is not possible in the longterm, but you somehow still succeed..
Bayes simulated some time ago JL-s HAR style, randomly entering at distribution, and results were in the end the same as continuous betting I am afraid..
So you say hit and run. But how and why do you always somehow succeed more times first to hit and then run, so brazenly deceiving our beloved variance?
Best
Drazen