hi folks,
let's say someone plays a session of roulette in which there is a strong tendency for blacks. instead of betting on blacks he bets on the 1st and the 2nd col. he assumes that if there is trend for black there should also be a trend for these 2 col.
is this assumption based on the believe that conditional probability sort of favors his bet selection?
oh, I know that this has been tried before and doesn't work . I'm just trying to understand the idea and theory behind it.
cheers
hans
let's say someone plays a session of roulette in which there is a strong tendency for blacks. instead of betting on blacks he bets on the 1st and the 2nd col. he assumes that if there is trend for black there should also be a trend for these 2 col.
is this assumption based on the believe that conditional probability sort of favors his bet selection?
oh, I know that this has been tried before and doesn't work . I'm just trying to understand the idea and theory behind it.
cheers
hans