This is getting a bit of airplay on another site.
Has anyone figured this stuff out yet? :o
http://web.archive.org/web/20021209001742/www.sq-ro-let.com/contents.html (http://web.archive.org/web/20021209001742/www.sq-ro-let.com/contents.html)
chapter 3 Sam! :thumbsup:
Two wheels are side by side.
Joe plays twelve units the first dozen.
Bill plays a unit on each number in the first dozen.
#10 comes on one wheel and #5 on the other. Who wins more?
Thanks, Bally.
Sam
Well, it is the same of course. I personally don't subscribe to Jack's theory BUT I have to say, I haven't quite figured out how to come to terms with the concept of betting against yourself - which is what you are doing if you bet more than one number. It would seem to be a bad idea yet the arithmetic shows quite clearly that it has no cost. Consider the following 2 scenarios - one betting all numbers and one betting just one number.
Scenario 1 – 1 chip on all 38 numbers for 38 spins (he is using the American wheel). Using the probabilities we would get a single hit on each spin so the arithmetic is like this: cost 38, return 35 plus our chip on that number = 36. Net loss = 2. Over 38 spins our total net loss is 76 units and our outlay is 38 x 38 = 1444. Calculating our loss in percentage terms is 76/1444= 0.0526. Or 5.26%.
Scenario 2 – 38 chips on 1 number for 38 spins. We get one hit (probabilistic-ally speaking). So – cost is the same at 1444 (38 x 38). The return when we get our hit is 38 x 35 plus our 38 chips on the number = 1368 so our net total loss is 1444 – 1368 = 76. Again, calculating our loss in percentage terms is 76/1444= 0.0526. Or 5.26%.So I'm afraid that his theory doesn't stack up – at least, as far as I understand what he is trying to say. If you think I haven't understood his theory properly then that's fine, explain it to me a bit more and I'll try another scenario.
mmm - I wonder what happened to scenario 1? Oh well, here it is.
Scenario 1 – 1 chip on all 38 numbers for 38 spins (he is using the American wheel). Using the probabilities we would get a single hit on each spin so the arithmetic is like this: cost 38, return 35 plus our chip on that number = 36. Net loss = 2. Over 38 spins our total net loss is 76 units and our outlay is 38 x 38 = 1444. Calculating our loss in percentage terms is 76/1444= 0.0526. Or 5.26%.
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What's going on? Why wouldn't it post? It was a simple cut and paste. I'll try one more time.
Scenario 1 – 1 chip on all 38 numbers for 38 spins (he is using the American wheel). Using the probabilities we would get a single hit on each spin so the arithmetic is like this: cost 38, return 35 plus our chip on that number = 36. Net loss = 2. Over 38 spins our total net loss is 76 units and our outlay is 38 x 38 = 1444. Calculating our loss in percentage terms is 76/1444= 0.0526. Or 5.26%.
Bryan
I posted the link up to the book on this site to help out another member (Twocatsam)
The other site where it was getting discussed does not allow links!
I am still reading through it myself. It is an entertaining read if nothing else.
cheers
QuoteWhat's going on? Why wouldn't it post? It was a simple cut and paste.
Bryan, you are getting acclimatized :nod: :D
Perhaps the toggle button can help this time. It's the "A" on the toolbar (https://betselection.cc/Themes/impulse2_smf20final/images/bbc/toggle.gif):
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It changes the post box into a regular text-only space (a la notepad). It accepts all text.